The yield curve: shape, slope and inversion
The yield curve plots the interest rate on one borrower's bonds against how long each bond has left to run, normally a government borrowing in its own currency. It usually slopes up, because lenders ask a premium for committing money for longer. When it slopes down, the market is usually pricing rate cuts.
In short
- The yield curve plots the yield on one issuer's bonds against the time each bond has left until maturity, using prices taken at a single moment.
- A yield curve normally slopes upward because a long yield contains the average of the short-term rates the market expects over the bond's life plus a term premium for the risks of lending longer.
- The term premium is the extra yield a lender asks for locking money up, and it is estimated by models rather than read off a screen, so different models put it at different levels.
- An inverted yield curve slopes downward, which usually means the bond market expects short-term interest rates to be lower in a year or two than they are today, though heavy demand for long bonds can squeeze the term premium and produce the same shape.
- In the United States an inverted curve has come before every recession dated since the late 1960s, with a lag that has run from roughly six months to about two years, but the record does not run the other way: curves have inverted with no recession following.
- The curve is a set of prices carrying what traders expect plus the premium they charge for time, rather than a mechanism that produces downturns, so an inversion sets no timetable and says nothing about how deep a downturn would be.
What the yield curve plots
The horizontal axis is time to maturity, running from a few months at the left to twenty or thirty years at the right, and out to fifty in a handful of markets. The vertical axis is the annual yield: the single rate that makes the bond's remaining payments add up to today's price. That is what you earn if you hold the bond to maturity and the borrower pays, and on a coupon bond it also assumes each coupon is put back to work at that same rate, which is an assumption rather than a promise. One dot per maturity, joined into a line, is the yield curve.
Two rules keep the picture meaningful. Every point comes from the same issuer, almost always a government borrowing in its own currency, so credit risk is roughly constant across the line and what changes from left to right is mainly time. And every point is taken at the same moment, because yields move all day. A yield curve is a snapshot, not a history.
Nobody publishes the curve as an opinion. Each point starts as a market price converted into a rate, so the line is anchored to what buyers and sellers actually agreed to, with a curve fitted through those points to fill the gaps between the maturities that trade. In the United States the Treasury publishes a daily par yield curve built from quotes on the most recently issued security at each maturity. Analysts then convert it into a zero-coupon curve, which strips out the effect of coupons paid along the way, and into a forward curve, which reads the same prices as a path of future short-term rates.
Most days the whole line shifts up or down together. The moves worth naming are the ones that change its shape: steepening, when long yields rise relative to short ones, and flattening, when the gap between the two ends closes.
Why the curve usually slopes up
Suppose you want to lend for two years. You can buy a two-year bond, or you can buy a one-year bond and buy another one when the first matures. Competition keeps those two routes roughly in line, because if one were widely expected to pay more, buyers would move towards it until its price rose and its yield came back down. It is not a riskless arbitrage, though. Nobody knows today what the second year will pay, and the two routes leave you exposed to different things: the rolling route to the rate you get on the second bond, the long route to the price you would take if you had to sell early. That gap is why the link between a long yield and expected short rates is an approximation with a premium attached rather than an identity:
Here is the yield on a bond with years to run, to are the one-year rates the market expects in each of those years, and is the term premium. The averaging is written the plain way here. The exact version compounds the rates rather than adding them, which is what the worked examples below do, and it moves the answer by less than a hundredth of a percentage point over two years and by more as the horizon lengthens.
The term premium is the extra yield a lender asks for taking on the risks that come with time itself: that inflation runs hotter than expected and eats the repayment, that rates move against you while your money is committed, that you have to sell early at whatever price is on offer that day. A nominal yield only helps if it beats inflation, which is what the real return calculator works out. The term premium is normally positive, and that is the main reason the curve slopes up even when nobody expects rates to change at all.
It is not printed anywhere. The term premium is the residual left over once a model has estimated what the market expected short rates to do, so estimates differ, and they have at times been negative. Steady demand for long bonds from pension funds matching long promises, or from a central bank buying them, pushes it down.
The shapes, and what each one is saying
Four descriptions cover almost everything you will see, and the middle two are transitions between the outer two.
| Shape | What the line does | What the market is saying |
|---|---|---|
| Normal | Rises left to right, steeply over the first two or three years, then flattens | Short rates are expected to hold or rise, and lenders are collecting a term premium |
| Steep | A wide gap between the short end and the long end | Short rates are expected to rise, often after a stretch of cuts |
| Flat | Almost level from three months to ten years | Little change expected in short rates, or a term premium that has been squeezed out |
| Inverted | Falls left to right, with short yields above long ones | Short rates are expected to be lower in a year or two than they are today, or the term premium has been squeezed hard |
A fifth shape turns up often enough to name: a humped curve rises to a peak somewhere in the middle, often around one to three years, then falls away. That is the market pricing in a little more tightening now and cuts later.
Which end moves matters as much as the shape. A curve can steepen because long yields rose, which usually means the market has raised its view of future growth, inflation or the term premium. It can also steepen because short yields fell, which usually means it has brought forward the date of the first cut. The line ends up looking similar and the message is not the same, so read the two ends separately before reading the slope.
Reading the curve as a path of future short rates
Because the two-year yield has to be consistent with rolling one-year money twice, the curve implies a rate for the second year that you can solve for. That implied number is the forward rate:
Rearranged, the one-year rate the curve implies for a year from now is:
Run it on the first worked example below. A one-year yield of 4.0 percent alongside a two-year yield of 4.3992 percent implies a one-year rate of 4.7999 percent starting twelve months out, which is the 4.8 percent the example was built from once the rounding in that 4.3992 is allowed for. The same arithmetic extends across the whole curve, which is how a forward curve is drawn.
Two cautions come with that number. First, the forward rate is what the market will trade at, not what anybody predicts: it contains the term premium, so it usually sits above the rate people genuinely expect, and it has been a biased forecast of actual future short rates. Second, annualising a multi-year total is a compounding calculation and not an average, which is the same operation as a growth rate over several years. The CAGR calculator does that step, and the compound interest calculator shows why the difference between averaging and compounding widens as the horizon gets longer.
Why an inverted curve gets attention
An inversion is strange on its face. Lenders are accepting less to be paid back in ten years than to be paid back in three months, which only makes sense if they expect short-term rates to fall a long way, far enough to more than offset the term premium they are giving up.
The front of the curve is dominated by policy, so short rates mostly fall when the central bank is expected to cut, and it cuts when inflation is coming down or the economy is weakening. An inverted curve is therefore the bond market saying, in prices rather than words, that it expects conditions soft enough to bring cuts. The record behind the attention is a United States record, and it runs in one direction only. The gap between the 10-year yield and the 3-month bill has turned negative before every recession dated since the late 1960s. It has also turned negative and been followed by no recession at all, starting with an episode in the mid-1960s and not ending there, so the record describes what has preceded downturns and does not tell you which inversions will be followed by one. The Federal Reserve Bank of New York publishes a monthly recession probability fitted to that spread, which summarises the historical relationship rather than measuring a cause.
One candidate channel does look more like cause than coincidence, and it is worth stating with its caveats attached. Banks fund themselves short and lend long, so a flat or inverted curve compresses the margin available on new lending, standards tighten, weaker borrowers are turned down and credit growth slows. The caveats are real: banks hedge this exposure, the rate they pay depositors moves slowly and is not the same thing as a market short rate, and measured margins do not track the slope of the curve neatly. Treat it as a plausible transmission channel that is still argued over rather than the mechanism that settles the question.
One detail decides half the arguments about whether the curve has inverted at all: which two points you subtract. The 10-year minus the 3-month bill is the spread the research record is built on. The 10-year minus the 2-year note is quoted more often in the press and tends to invert earlier. They can disagree for months.
What the inversion signal does not tell you
The honest description of the recession record is a correlation with a variable lag, not a mechanism with a schedule.
- The sample is tiny. Fewer than ten United States recessions sit in the modern data, and the same handful of episodes is quoted every time. A rule with eight or nine observations cannot carry the confidence a percentage figure implies.
- The converse has failed. Every recession having been preceded by an inversion is not the same claim as every inversion being followed by a recession, and the second one is what a reader usually wants. Curves have inverted, stayed inverted for a long stretch, and gone back to a normal slope with no dated recession behind them.
- Each downturn had its own trigger. The United States recession that began in early 2020 counts as a hit for an inversion the year before, and what actually caused it was a pandemic. A record built partly on episodes like that is a record of what the bond market worried about, not of what it saw coming.
- The lag has been all over the place. From the first inversion to the start of the recession has run from roughly six months to about two years. A signal that fires somewhere inside a two-year window is not a timing tool.
- The same shape can have two causes. A curve can invert because cuts are expected, or because heavy demand for long bonds crushed the term premium. The line looks identical and the message is not, which is why analysts decompose the curve rather than reading the slope alone.
- Un-inversion is not an all clear. In the United States, recessions have often begun after the curve had already returned to a positive slope, because the cuts the market was pricing in arrive and steepen it. The sequence usually ends with the signal switched off.
- It says nothing about depth. Even when the call is right, the curve carries no information about how deep or how long a downturn will be.
Used well, the curve is one input among several. It shows what the largest and most closely watched government bond market is currently pricing for short rates, which is worth knowing, and pricing is not the same as predicting, because the same number carries a term premium nobody can observe directly. Everything here is educational material rather than financial advice.
Why the curve takes the shape it does, and why an inversion is read as a recession signal, is a macroeconomics question: the yield curve.
Worked examples
A rising path of short rates makes an upward sloping curve
One-year money pays 4.0 percent today, and the market expects the one-year rate to be 4.8 percent a year from now. Ignoring the term premium, what should a two-year bond yield?
- Take $10,000 through the first year at 4.0 percent: .
- Take that through the second year at 4.8 percent: , so two years of rolling one-year bonds ends at $10,899.20.
- Ask what single annual rate turns $10,000 into $10,899.20 over 2 years: .
- Take the square root: , which is 4.3992 percent.
The two-year yield is 4.3992 percent, or about 4.40 percent. It sits above the 4.0 percent on offer for one year, so the curve slopes up, and it sits below next year's expected 4.8 percent because it blends the two years into one rate. That blend compounds rather than averages. Adding 4.0 and 4.8 and halving gives 4.40 percent, which is near enough over two years and drifts further from the right answer as the horizon lengthens. Add a term premium and the slope gets steeper still.
The same arithmetic when the market expects cuts
Now one-year money pays 5.5 percent and the market expects the one-year rate to be 3.5 percent a year from now. What should the two-year bond yield, and what does the curve look like?
- First year at 5.5 percent: .
- Second year at 3.5 percent: , so $10,000 becomes $10,919.25.
- Solve for the single annual rate: .
- , which is 4.4952 percent.
The two-year yield is 4.4952 percent, about 4.50 percent, which is a full point below the 5.5 percent one-year rate. The curve is inverted, and nothing unusual happened to make it so: the market simply expects the short rate to be cut, and blending today's high rate with tomorrow's lower one gives a long yield below the short one.
Why long bonds earn a term premium: a 10-year bond when yields rise
You pay $1,000 for a 10-year bond with a 4 percent coupon, so it pays $40 a year and repays its principal of $1,000 at the end, making the final payment $1,040. The next day the market yield for that maturity is 5 percent. What is the bond worth?
- Value the ten coupon payments at the new yield: .
- Value the repayment at the end: .
- Add the two parts: .
The bond is worth $922.78. A one percentage point move in yields took about 7.7 percent off its value overnight, and nothing about the borrower changed. That price risk is what the term premium is paid for. Government bonds usually pay coupons twice a year rather than once, which moves the arithmetic a little and the conclusion not at all.
The same one point move on a two-year bond
Same 4 percent coupon and same $1,000 repayment, but this bond matures in two years, so it pays $40 next year and $1,040 the year after. Market yields go to 5 percent again.
- The coupon a year out: .
- The final payment two years out: .
- Add them: .
The two-year bond is worth $981.41, down about 1.9 percent, against about 7.7 percent for the 10-year bond in the same move. For this pair of bonds the long one lost roughly four times as much, and the ratio depends on the coupon and the starting yield rather than being a fixed rule. Long bonds move far more for the same change in yields, which is the risk lenders want the term premium to pay them for taking.
Common questions
Which yield curve do people mean when they say it inverted?
The curve for government bonds in the country being discussed, which in the United States means Treasuries. Two spreads carry most of the argument: the 10-year yield minus the 3-month bill, which is what the recession research uses, and the 10-year minus the 2-year note, which the press quotes more often and which usually inverts earlier. They can point different ways for months, so the pair of maturities matters as much as the headline. Other countries have their own curves, and the United States recession record does not transfer to them without checking.
Does an inverted yield curve cause a recession?
No. The curve is a set of prices, and prices summarise what buyers and sellers expect. An inversion says traders expect short-term rates to be lower later, which usually means they expect cuts, which usually means they expect weakness. The nearest thing to a causal channel is bank lending: banks fund short and lend long, so a flat or inverted curve squeezes the margin on new loans and can tighten credit. Even that channel is argued over, because banks hedge the exposure and deposit rates move on their own schedule.
The curve has steepened again. Is the signal over?
Not by itself. In the United States, recessions have often begun after the curve had already returned to a positive slope, because the central bank starts cutting short rates once weakness shows up, and cutting the short end steepens the curve. Re-steepening has usually been the next step in that historical sequence rather than a cancellation of the earlier signal, and the sample behind the word usually is a handful of episodes in one country.
Keep reading
This page is educational material, not financial advice. The figures come from the formula shown and assume the inputs you enter hold for the whole term. Your own rate, fees, taxes and timing will differ, so treat the output as arithmetic to check a decision against, not as a recommendation.