WACC formula and calculator
WACC is the blended return a company has to earn to keep everyone funding it. Weight the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt by the share of capital each supplies. With $6,000,000 of equity at 9 percent and $4,000,000 of debt at 5 percent, taxed at 25 percent, WACC is 6.9 percent.
Weighted average cost of capital
6.90%
Equity is 60% of the capital at 9.0%. Debt is 40% at 3.75% after tax.
- Equity weight
- 60.00%
- Debt weight
- 40.00%
- Cost of debt after tax
- 3.75%
- WACC with no relief on interest
- 7.40%
- What the interest deduction is worth
- 0.50 points
Shares in issue times the share price, not the book equity line.
Interest-bearing borrowing. Book value is a fair stand-in where the debt is not traded.
What shareholders require, often estimated with the capital asset pricing model.
The rate the company would pay to borrow today, not the coupon on old borrowing.
Set it to 0 where interest earns no deduction, or where there is no profit to shelter.
The formula
is the market value of equity, the market value of debt, and the two added together. is the cost of equity, the cost of debt before tax, and the marginal tax rate that applies to the company.
What this calculator works out
Enter the market value of the equity, the market value of the debt, what each of them costs, and the tax rate the company pays. The calculator returns WACC, the weight of each source of capital, and the cost of debt once the tax relief on interest is counted.
WACC is the rate a company discounts its own future cash flows at. It is the number that goes into a net present value, and it is the bar an internal rate of return has to clear. A rate that is half a point too low raises every present value in a long forecast, so the projects it wrongly accepts are the marginal ones that were closest to the line already.
What comes out is a nominal rate. A lender quotes a nominal rate, and the risk-free rate inside the cost of equity is a nominal government yield, so WACC carries inflation in it and belongs against cash flows that carry inflation too. Discount a forecast written in today's prices at a nominal WACC and inflation gets counted twice, which understates the project by more the longer the forecast runs. Either inflate the cash flows or strip the inflation out of the rate, but do not mix the two.
The answer is only as good as the two costs going in, and neither is printed on a statement. The cost of debt is what the company would pay to borrow today, not the coupon on borrowing it did years ago. The cost of equity is an estimate of what shareholders require, and reasonable people put it in a range rather than on a point.
The weights, and where they come from
Since , the two weights add to 1, so WACC lands between the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt. Move a dollar of funding from one side to the other and the answer slides along the line between those two costs.
Two sources is the usual case rather than the only one. Where a company has preferred stock the formula grows a third term, , with widened to and no against it, because preferred dividends are paid out of taxed profit like ordinary ones. That also lifts the bound above: with a third source priced higher than the cost of equity, WACC can land above the cost of equity rather than between the two costs. This calculator runs the two-source case, so preferred stock has to be added by hand.
Use market values, not the balance sheet. Equity at market value is the share count times the share price. Debt at market value is what its bonds fetch, and where the debt is not traded its book value is a fair stand-in, because a loan at a rate near today's rate is worth close to what is owed. Book equity is not a stand-in for market equity, and the common mistake below shows what happens when it is used as one.
The cost of equity is usually estimated with the capital asset pricing model: the risk-free rate, plus beta times the equity risk premium. The cost of debt is the yield the company's debt carries now.
| Input | Where it comes from |
|---|---|
| Equity value | Shares in issue times the share price |
| Debt value | Market price of the debt, or book value where it is not traded |
| Cost of equity | Risk-free rate plus beta times the equity risk premium |
| Cost of debt | The yield the company would pay to borrow today |
| Tax rate | The marginal rate expected over the life of the cash flows |
A company with no debt has an equity weight of 1, and its WACC is its cost of equity. That is a useful check on the arithmetic: set the debt to zero in the calculator and the two figures should agree.
What the interest deduction does
Interest counts as a cost of doing business wherever the tax code says it does, so a company that pays interest usually pays less tax. That is why the debt term carries and the equity term does not. Dividends and buybacks come out of profit that has already been taxed, so there is nothing to deduct.
At a 25 percent tax rate, every dollar of interest costs the company 75 cents once the deduction is counted, which turns a 5 percent coupon into a 3.75 percent cost. What the relief is worth to WACC is the debt weight times the cost of debt times the tax rate: 0.5 percentage points on the figures in the first worked example, and more at every higher tax rate, debt weight or borrowing cost. The second worked example is the one that measures that gap, by switching the relief off and running the same company again.
Three conditions sit behind that, and any of them can take it away.
- There has to be taxable profit to shelter. A company making losses deducts nothing this year, though many tax systems let the deduction be carried forward to a year when there is profit again.
- The deduction has to be allowed. In the United States, interest on business borrowing is generally deductible against taxable income, subject to a cap tied to earnings that has been rewritten more than once. Other countries set their own caps, deny relief on some structures, or give equity a matching allowance so the bias disappears. Check the rule that applies to the company and the year rather than carrying one country's treatment into another.
- The rate has to be the marginal one. The figure that matters is the rate on the profit the interest actually shelters, not the average rate that falls out of last year's accounts.
Where interest is not deductible, or there is no profit to shelter, set the tax rate to 0. The debt term then costs its full amount, which is exactly what the second worked example runs.
Why debt looks cheaper and does not stay cheaper
Debt costs less than equity almost everywhere you look, for two sound reasons. Lenders are paid before shareholders and can force the issue if they are not, so they carry less risk and ask for less return. The deduction then takes a further slice off what the company pays.
So tilting the mix towards debt lowers WACC, which is what the third worked example shows: the same company funded 60 percent by debt rather than 40 percent reads 5.85 percent instead of 6.9 percent.
That calculation holds both input costs fixed, and holding them fixed is the trick in it. Every extra dollar borrowed puts a fixed claim ahead of the shareholders and makes what is left of the profit swing harder, so the cost of equity rises with the leverage ratio. Lenders watching their cover thin out want more as well, and past a point they want covenants and security on top of the higher rate. Both inputs climb while the weights move towards the cheaper one, and the two effects pull against each other.
The classic result, from Modigliani and Miller, is that with no taxes and no cost of financial distress the two cancel exactly: the cost of equity rises by just enough to leave WACC where it was, and how a firm is funded says nothing about what it is worth. Add the tax deduction and borrowing wins for a while. Add the cost of distress, where a forced sale, a rushed refinancing or a covenant breach starts to look possible, and it stops winning, because that risk prices into the debt and the equity at the same time. Firms in the same industry clustering around a similar mix, rather than borrowing to the limit, is that trade-off showing up in practice. Judging where the limit sits is a risk and return question, and it cannot be settled by pointing at the lower number.
Worked examples
WACC on a 60/40 capital structure
A company is funded by $6,000,000 of equity and $4,000,000 of debt. Shareholders require 9 percent, lenders charge 5 percent, and the marginal tax rate is 25 percent. What is its WACC?
- Add the two market values to get total capital: .
- Equity weight is equity over the total: , so 60 percent. Debt takes the rest, 40 percent.
- Take the tax relief off the cost of debt: .
- Weight each cost: from the equity side, from the debt side.
- Add the two: .
WACC is 6.9 percent. Equity supplies 60 percent of the capital at 9 percent, debt supplies 40 percent at 3.75 percent after the deduction, and the blend sits nearer the equity cost because equity is the bigger share. How much nearer is the debt weight exactly: 6.9 percent is 40 percent of the way down from 9 percent to 3.75 percent, which is a quick way to sanity-check a WACC without redoing the sum. This is the rate the company would discount a project of its own ordinary risk at.
The same company with no relief on interest
Same $6,000,000 of equity and $4,000,000 of debt, same 9 percent and 5 percent. Now run it where interest earns no deduction at all, either because the rules do not allow one or because there is no taxable profit to shelter. How much of the WACC was the deduction doing?
- With no relief the cost of debt stays where the lender set it: .
- The weights have not moved, since neither market value changed: 60 percent equity, 40 percent debt.
- Blend them: .
- Set that beside the 6.9 percent from the first example. The gap is 0.5 percentage points.
Without the deduction WACC is 7.4 percent rather than 6.9 percent, so the tax treatment of interest is worth 0.5 percentage points to this company. That gap is the debt weight times the cost of debt times the tax rate, or , which is why the same firm can carry two different costs of capital in two countries.
Shifting the mix towards debt
The company borrows to buy back stock, so the mix flips to $4,000,000 of equity and $6,000,000 of debt. Hold both costs where they were, at 9 percent and 5 percent with tax at 25 percent. What happens to WACC?
- The weights swap over: equity is now 40 percent of the capital and debt 60 percent.
- The after-tax cost of debt is unchanged at 3.75 percent, because neither the coupon nor the tax rate moved.
- Weight the costs again: and .
- Add them: , against 6.9 before the buyback.
On unchanged input costs WACC falls from 6.9 percent to 5.85 percent. Holding those costs fixed is what makes the fall look free. More debt puts a fixed claim ahead of the shareholders, so the equity gets riskier and asks for more, and lenders with less cover charge more too. Reprice the equity at 11 percent and the debt at 6 percent, which is 4.5 percent after the same deduction, and this 40/60 mix reads , above where it started.
The mistake that costs the most
Taking the weights off the balance sheet instead of the market.
The formula asks how the company is funded now, at what those claims are worth now. Say the equity in the first worked example trades at $6,000,000 while its book value is $4,000,000, against $4,000,000 of debt. Market weights make it 60 percent equity and 40 percent debt, and WACC is 6.9 percent. Book weights split it 50 percent each and give .
The error runs in one direction. Book equity sits below market equity at most profitable companies, so book weights overstate the debt share, and the debt side is the cheap side. The result is a hurdle rate that is too low, applied to every year of a forecast, on exactly the marginal projects where half a point decides the answer.
Debt is the exception that keeps the habit alive. Its book value really is a fair stand-in for its market value most of the time, so reading debt off the balance sheet works, and people carry the habit across to equity, where it does not.
Common questions
Which tax rate goes into the formula?
The marginal rate the company expects to pay on the profit the interest shelters, over the life of the cash flows being discounted. That is not the effective rate from last year's accounts, which one-off items, credits and losses carried forward push around. Where interest earns no deduction, or there is no taxable profit to shelter, set the rate to 0 and the debt term costs its full amount. Deduction rules and rates differ by country and get rewritten, so state which treatment you assumed.
Is WACC the right discount rate for every project?
Only for a project carrying the same risk as the rest of the business and funded in roughly the same mix. WACC is the average cost of the capital the company already has, so using it on a venture well outside the firm's normal work discounts risky cash flows at a safer rate and flatters them. The usual fix is a rate built for the project itself, often taken from the cost of capital of companies that do that kind of work as their main business.
Does more debt always lower WACC?
No. On fixed input costs the arithmetic says yes, which is what the third worked example shows: 6.9 percent falls to 5.85 percent when the mix moves to 60 percent debt. The inputs do not stay fixed, though. Equity ranks behind the debt, so more borrowing makes the residual riskier and the cost of equity rises, while lenders with thinner cover charge more as well. Reprice both at 11 percent and 6 percent on that same mix, the debt costing 4.5 percent after tax, and WACC comes out at 7.1 percent, higher than the 6.9 percent it started from.
Keep reading
This page is educational material, not financial advice. The figures come from the formula shown and assume the inputs you enter hold for the whole term. Your own rate, fees, taxes and timing will differ, so treat the output as arithmetic to check a decision against, not as a recommendation.